The Moses Code

[footballhenry]

I just watched this new documentary this morning and was very moved by it. It is similiar to 'the Secret' (sort of) but much more 'spiritually' oriented. Check it out, I think you'll enjoy it.

~namaste~

http://video.google.com/videoplay?docid=-1011396694650284250&q=the+moses+code&ei=TrpKSNO_LoqcrwLGi_CqDA

[Chachie]

I'm about half way thru it now. Not bad.

Edit- Finished it. Great message. I don't know about their translation of "I am that I am," but it's a perfectly noble translation even if in error. Their message is definitely needed in our world today.

[footballhenry]

I'm about half way thru it now. Not bad.

Edit- Finished it. Great message. I don't know about their translation of "I am that I am," but it's a perfectly noble translation even if in error. Their message is definitely needed in our world today.

Glad you found some insight through it.

[Thiebear]

Edit- Finished it. Great message. I don't know about their translation of "I am that I am,"

Didn't Popeye say that all the time.

[Fletch_Lives59]

can you two slackers get to work already...jeezs..:doh: must be nice..

that was pretty good though...

[DRSmith]

I'm about half way thru it now. Not bad.

Edit- Finished it. Great message. I don't know about their translation of "I am that I am," but it's a perfectly noble translation even if in error. Their message is definitely needed in our world today.

unless the reasons were not noble

everytime I see אֶהְיֶה translated in other places it is I will be or shall be like in verse 12 of that same chapter

[techboy]

unless the reasons were not noble

everytime I see אֶהְיֶה translated in other places it is I will be or shall be like in verse 12 of that same chapter

Here's the notes from the NET Bible, which is excellent for these sort of issues.

1 tn The verb form used here is אֶהְיֶה (’ehyeh), the Qal imperfect, first person common singular, of the verb הָיָה (haya, “to be”). It forms an excellent paronomasia with the name. So when God used the verb to express his name, he used this form saying, “I am.” When his people refer to him as Yahweh, which is the third person masculine singular form of the same verb, they say “he is.” Some commentators argue for a future tense translation, “I will be who I will be,” because the verb has an active quality about it, and the Israelites lived in the light of the promises for the future. They argue that “I am” would be of little help to the Israelites in bondage. But a translation of “I will be” does not effectively do much more except restrict it to the future. The idea of the verb would certainly indicate that God is not bound by time, and while he is present (“I am”) he will always be present, even in the future, and so “I am” would embrace that as well (see also Ruth 2:13; Ps 50:21; Hos 1:9). The Greek translation of the OT used a participle to capture the idea, and several times in the Gospels Jesus used the powerful “I am” with this significance (e.g., John 8:58). The point is that Yahweh is sovereignly independent of all creation and that his presence guarantees the fulfillment of the covenant (cf. Isa 41:4; 42:6, 8; 43:10-11; 44:6; 45:5-7). Others argue for a causative Hiphil translation of “I will cause to be,” but nowhere in the Bible does this verb appear in Hiphil or Piel. A good summary of the views can be found in G. H. Parke-Taylor, Yahweh, the Divine Name in the Bible. See among the many articles: B. Beitzel, “Exodus 3:14 and the Divine Name: A Case of Biblical Paronomasia,” TJ 1 (1980): 5-20; C. D. Isbell, “The Divine Name ehyeh as a Symbol of Presence in Israelite Tradition,” HAR 2 (1978): 101-18; J. G. Janzen, “What’s in a Name? Yahweh in Exodus 3 and the Wider Biblical Context,” Int 33 (1979): 227-39; J. R. Lundbom, “God’s Use of the Idem per Idem to Terminate Debate,” HTR 71 (1978): 193-201; A. R. Millard, “Yw and Yhw Names,” VT 30 (1980): 208-12; and R. Youngblood, “A New Occurrence of the Divine Name ‘I AM,’” JETS 15 (1972): 144-52.

[DRSmith]

So how does it translate it in verse 12

What you are doing is quoting from a source that says it is okay to translate it that way so you can say Jesus is God, so again we go back is it noble when you trnalsate to prove a point you want instead of translating what is written

[techboy]

So how does it translate it in verse 12

What you are doing is quoting from a source that says it is okay to translate it that way so you can say Jesus is God, so again we go back is it noble when you trnalsate to prove a point you want instead of translating what is written

Sorry, pal, but it was a Jewish rendering first. The Septuagint, for instance, uses eimi, which is first person singular present, and seeing as how the Septuagint was translated by roughly 70 Jewish scholars in the third century BC, well before Jesus was even born, it seems highly unlikely that this is a "noble" mistranslation.

And, of course, there is no comma either, which is an especially silly idea since it requires a particular English translation with English grammar and punctuation.

[DRSmith]

Sorry, pal, but it was a Jewish rendering first. The Septuagint, for instance, uses eimi, which is first person singular present, and seeing as how the Septuagint was translated by roughly 70 Jewish scholars in the third century BC, well before Jesus was even born, it seems highly unlikely that this is a "noble" mistranslation.

And, of course, there is no comma either, which is an especially silly idea since it requires a particular English translation with English grammar and punctuation.

The Septuagint translation of ehyeh asher ehyeh cannot be an exact rendering of the Hebrew, because neither the form of words nor the actual words of the Greek allow for that possibility

http://www.exodus-314.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=13&Itemid=26

So you go to the actual words and translate and you do not get what has been translated you get what is inserted

[techboy]

So you go to the actual words and translate and you do not get what has been translated you get what is inserted

First, you should probably read the websites you cite, instead of quote mining. This is a quote from that author's conclusion:

The evidence of the textual, philosophical, and theological analysis presented in this paper is that there is a divine name in the words of Exodus 3:14; that this name is the Personal name of God; that it is the Hebrew word Ehyeh; and that Ehyeh should be translated into English as I AM.

You need to be more careful. Your own sources refute your argument.

Second, even if it you were correct (which you're not), you totally miss the point. Your argument is that the translation of "I AM" is theologically motivated by Christians who want to link Jesus' use of this same phrase to His claiming to be God. This argument fails, miserably, because even if it was true that "I AM" is not correct, the translation "I AM" is far older than Christianity, having been definitively used in a Jewish document dating to the third century B.C. Obviously, therefore, such a motivation simply could not have been behind the translation.

Your argument just doesn't make any sense.

[DRSmith]

No because with that statment they have shown the translation if faulty, besides I am is not the name of God He Himself says His name is יְהוָה in Isaiah

The greek have words that mean many things, it is only by looking at the original hebrew you can sometimes understand how something should be translated into English

Take porneria do you know how many sins that covers

[Zguy28]

No because with that statment they have shown the translation if faulty, besides I am is not the name of God He Himself says His name is יְהוָה in Isaiah

The greek have words that mean many things, it is only by looking at the original hebrew you can sometimes understand how something should be translated into English

Take porneria do you know how many sins that covers

Porneria? Is that like Gonorrhea? Sounds pretty painful.

Or do you mean porneiða (transliterated porneia) which means illicit sexual intercourse?

[DRSmith]

Porneria? Is that like Gonorrhea? Sounds pretty painful.

Or do you mean porneiða (transliterated porneia) which means illicit sexual intercourse?

Yep sorry misspelled it, but in English it refers to many sexual acts we have different names for

[DRSmith]

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